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This repository has been archived by the owner on Nov 29, 2022. It is now read-only.
If I have a control group which is ~2% of the overall data compared to ~98% treatment group (i.e., p=0.98), should the training data be balance such that it will have a 50/50 split between control and treatment?
Otherwise, the negative Inverse probability weight Multiplier for the control group (-1/(1-p) = -50) will be much larger than the positive Inverse probability weight Multiplier for the treatment group (1/p = 1.02).
The text was updated successfully, but these errors were encountered:
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If I have a control group which is ~2% of the overall data compared to ~98% treatment group (i.e., p=0.98), should the training data be balance such that it will have a 50/50 split between control and treatment?
Otherwise, the negative Inverse probability weight Multiplier for the control group (-1/(1-p) = -50) will be much larger than the positive Inverse probability weight Multiplier for the treatment group (1/p = 1.02).
The text was updated successfully, but these errors were encountered: